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unless you practice Mesopotamian Paganism, your religion was not the first (known). And as it was not the earliest known religion, it can’t have developed all of it’s moral code, as parts of most religions’ moral codes are shared. And every individual religion has tailored it’s own moral code. Therefore, unless you’re trying to argue that religiosity itself is the originator of morality (rather than one specific religion) you really have no leg to stand on. And before that religion was developed, in order for the kind of society to form that would develop religion, moral codes had to be in place that would allow humans to work together.
So, while Mac may not have ever been in an environment that was void of religion, a society with some sort of morals must have at one point existed without religion to allow systems of religion to develop. Any other scenario is logically impossible.
"“logically impossible”
sorry, but socratic arguments do not apply to anthropological evidence
i also don’t even totally disagree with this—IT’S JUST NOT WHAT I WAS TALKING ABOUT
(Source: nerdragerant)
